WASSCE 2014

Objectives



​1. The excretory product in protozoans is

A. amino acids

B. uric acids.

C. amnonia

D. urea.


2. Which of the following is a living organism?

A. Muscle

B. Nucleus

C. Yeast

D. Mitochondrion


3. Which of the following organisms is the most specialized?

A. Paramecium

B. Amoeba

C. Spirogyra

D. Rhizopus


4. Active transport can be defined as the movement of

A. substances from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration

B. substances from a region of low concentration to a region of high concentration across a living cell membrane.

C. substances across a living cell membrane using energy from the cell.

D. movement of molecules in a medium.


5. Which of the following cell inclusions can destroy other cell organelles?

A. Centriole

B. Ribosome

C. Lysosome

D. Mitochondrion



6. In which of the following yam tissues will osmosis occur?

A. Boiled and peeled

B. Raw and peeled

C. Boiled and unpecled

D. Roasted and peeled


7. The line XZ in the diagram below represents an actual distance of 10.0 cm and the length of the diagram is 5.0 cm. What is the magnification of the diagram?





A.x O.2

B. X 0.5V

C. X 2.0

D. x 50.0


8. The following events occur during mitosis in a cell: I. Chromatids separate II. Chromosomes become visible III. Chromosomes align at the equator V. Cytoplasm divides (Cytokinesis). The correct sequence of the events is

A. Ill, II, IV, I

B. II, III, I, IV

C. M, I, III, IV

D. II, IV, I, III


9. Which of the following statements about asexual reproduction is correct? It

A. always involves one parent but the offspring are genetically different from the parent

B. may involve two parents but the offspring is always identical to one parent

C. always involves one parent and the offspring are genetically identical to the parent

D. involves two parents but the offspring is not genetically identical to any of the parents.


The diagram below is an illustration of a mammalian bone.Use it to answer questions 10 and 11.





10. The bone illustrated above is the

A. femur

B. humerus

C. radius

D. ulna



​11. The function of the part labelled I is to

A. Fit into the glenoid cavity of the scapula

B. Fit into the acetabulum of the pelvic girdle

C. Support the lower arm

D. prevent the arm from bending backwards


12. Which of the following processes is not a function of the mammalian skin?

A. Regulation of body temperature

B. Reception of external stimuli

C. Excretion

D. Gaseous exchange


13. The legs of an accident victim with a fractured vertebral column and injured spinal cord could not be raised because

A. Impulses from receptors in the legs cannot travel to the brain

B. Impulses from the brain cannot travel to the legs.

C. Chemical substances will be released at synapses in the central nervous system

D. Reflex actions cannot take place in the legs


14. Which of the following conditions in flowering plants enhance self pollination?

A. Cleistogamy

B. Heterostyly

C. Protandry

D. Protogyny


15. The diagram below is an illustration of the left side of the human cerebrum. The part labelled X controls





A. general memory Posterior

B. speech

C. sight Anterior

D. respiratory functions



Use the diagram below to answer question 16 only.





16. The diagram above is an illustration of

A. normal sight

B. short sightedness

C. correction of long sightedness

D. correction of short sightedness.


17. The inability to maintain proper balance of the body in humans may

A. cochlea

B. Eustachian tube

C. semi-circular canals

D. oval window.


18. The following substances pass into the blood of the foetus from the mother's blood via the placenta except

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Glucose.

C. Viruses

D. Antibodies


19. An inferior ovary of a flower is situated

A. Below the floral parts

B. Above the floral parts

C. At the same level with all the floral parts

D. At the centre of the floral parts.


20. Older parts of plant roots do not normally absorb water because.

A. they lack xylem

B. they have small surface are

C. the phloem is dead

D. they lack root hairs ,



​21. The amount of starch in a germinating seed decreases because the starch is used up

A. For respiration and building up of cells -

B. To build cellulose cell wall

C. To develop meristematic tissues

D. For the production of enzymes


22. The purpose of treating poor soil with lime is to increase the quantity of

A. Nitrogen

B. Phosphorus

C. Calcium

D. Sulphur


23. A meal consisting of yam and a lot of vegetables is not balanced because it does not contain

A. carbohydrates

B. proteins

C vitamins

D. minerals


24. In a Biuret test, some protein was mixed with sodium hydroxide solution. Which of the following chemicals should be added to the mixture for a positive result?

A. Mercurous nitrate

B. Copper sulphate

C. Sodium carbonate

D. Silver nitrate


25. A characteristic feature of plant parasites is the

A. Possession of holdfast

B. Possession of rhizoids

C. Development of hanging roots

D. Development of haustoria



26. The part of a leguminous plant where bacteria like Azotobacter can be found is

A. At the nodes of the stem

B. At the internodes

C. In the root nodules

D. In the spongy mesophyll


27. The following adaptations are associated with the flight of birds except

A. Reduced body weight.

B. Streamlined shape

C. Presence of powerful muscles

D. Clawed digits.


28. The following habitats can be found in West Africa except

A. Mangrove swamp

B. Sahel savanna

C. Savanna grassland

D. Temperate grassland


29. The difference between a community and population is

A. A community is made up of organisms of the same species while a population is made up of organisms of different species.

B. A community is made up of populations of living organisms while a population is made up of organisms of the same species.

C. An ecological niche does not exist in the community but it does in a population

D. A community attracts competition but a population does not.


30. Which of the following statements about the circulation of water in nature is not correct? Water

A. Constantly evaporates from seas, rivers, lakes and soil

B. Vapour rises, cools, condenses and precipitates as rain and dew

C. Removed from oceans is permanently lost.

D. is lost in plants by transpiration and decay.



​The diagram below illustrates an ecological instrument. Use it to answer questions 31 and 32





31. The instrument is

A. An anemometer

B. A hygrometer

C. A barometer

D. A wind vane


32. The instrument is used to measure the

A. direction of wind

B. speed of wind

C. air pressure in a habitat

D. turbidity of water


33. The following organisms are consumers except

A. earthworm

B. Spirogyra

C. bacteria

D. Rhizopus


Use the substances listed below to answer questions 34 and 35. I. Fertilizer II. Insecticides III. Sewage IV. Crude oil V. Sulphur dioxide


34. The atmosphere can be polluted by

A. I only

B. III only

C. IV only

D. II and V only


35. Which of the substances constitute domestic waste?

A. I only

B. Ill only

C. IV only

D. II and V only



36. The table below shows the oxygen level, number of green plants and fish in rivers flowing through four towns. Which of the towns is likely to be discharging untreated sewage in their river?





37. Which of the following natural resources is non-renewable?

A. Water

B. Coal

C. Forest

D. Air


38. Which of the following statements is not a reason for banning bush burning? It

A. Allows for quick regrowth of grasses

B. Kills soil microorganisms

C. Leaves the soil bare of vegetation

D. Burns off organic soil nutrients


39. Which of the statements below explains why fertilizers are added to soils?

A. Increasing the humus content of the soil

B. Improving the water-retaining property of the soil

C. Increasing the nutrient level of the soil

D. Preventing soil erosion


40. Characteristics that exhibit continuous variation are generally

A. A single gene

B. Recessive genes

C. Epistatic interactions

D. multiple genes.



​41. Differences in characteristics that exist among individuals of the same species is referred to as

A. Genetics

B. Dominance

C. Hybrid

D. Variation


42. Which of the following traits is not a morphological variation in humans?

A. Ability to taste PTC

B. Colour

C. Fingerprints

D. Size


43. Which of the following statements about chromosomes is correct?

A. All the chromosomes of a species are the same in shape

B. The number present in a species is constant

C. They are neatly arranged in the cytoplasm

D. They bear ribosomes on their outer membranes


44. A small stem from a hibiscus plant was placed in a nutrient medium, and it developed into a new plant. The new plant was reproduced

A. Asexually with a different genotype from the parent plant.

B. Sexually with a different genotype from the parent plant.

C. Asexually with the same genotype as the parent plant,

D. Sexually with the same genotype as the parent plant.


45. The F generation of a cross between a red cock and white hen were all red because the gene for the

A. White colour did not segregate

B. Red colour was dominant

C. White colour was dominant

D. Red colour was recessive



46. Which of the following diseases can be inherited?

A. Pneumonia

B. AIDS

C. Sickle cell anaemia

D. Goitre


47. In dihybrid inheritance, Mendel considered

A. A pair of contrasting characters

B. Two pairs of contrasting characters

C. Three pairs of contrasting characters

D. Four pairs of contrasting characters.. .


48. The main reason for nuptial flight in termites is to

A. Escape unfavourable conditions

B. Search for food

C. Form new colonies

D. communicate with one another.


49. Which o| the following organisms is not a social insect?

A. Teimites

B. Ants

C. Giasshoppers

D. Bees


50. Lamarck's theory of evolution is based on the fact that

A. Organisms acquire genes from their parents

B. Organisms pass on acquired characters to their offspring.

C. Characteristics of organisms are determined by the creator.

D. characteristics of organisms are not the sum of their parents' characters.



WASSCE JUNE 2014 BIOLOGY OBJECTIVE TEST

ANSWERS

1. C 2. C 3. A 4. B 5.C 6. B 7. B 8. B 9.C 10. B

11. D 12. D 13. A 14. A 15. A 16. C 17. C 18. A 19. A 20. D

21. A 22. C 23. B 24. B 25. D 26. C 27. D 28. D 29. B 30. C

31. D 32. A 33. B 34. D 35. B 36. D 37. B 38. A 39. D 40. D

41. D 42. A 43. B 44. C 45. B 46. C 47. B 48. C 49. C 50. B