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CHEMISTRY (Objective Questions And Answers)


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THEORY QUESTIONS
WAEC SYLLABUS

WASSCE 2015

Objectives



1. The negatively charged particle in an atom is the

A. electron.

B. neutron.

C. positron.

D. proton.


2. How many orbitals are contained in an atom with atomic number 13?

A. 7

B.6

C. 5

D.3


3. The compound formed between 14X and 1SY is

A. XY.

B. XY2.

C. X2Ys

D. X4Y6.


4. The van der Waals' forces are dominant intermolecular forces in

A. ammonium chloride.

B. chlorine.

C. sodium chloride.

D. water.


5. The shape of a molecule of water is

A. non-linear

B. octahedral

C. pyramidral

D. tetrahedra)


ANSWERS

6. A metallic ion Z2* with an inert gas structure contains 18 electrons. How many protons are contained in this ion?

A. 20

B. 18

C. 16

D.2 .


7. Which of the following pairs of compounds belongs to the same homologous series?

A. CjH, and C,H,

B. C4H10 and C5H10

C. C2H4 and C4H10

D. C2He and C4H10


8. Which of the following pairs of elements forms amphoteric oxides?

A. Be and Mg

B. Na and K

C. B and AI

D. Si and Pb


9. The following transition metal ions would be coloured in aqueous solution except

A.Cr3+

B.Fe3+

C. Mn3+

D. Sc3*


10. The gas given off when ethanol reacts with sodium is

A. carbon (IV) oxide.

B. hydrogen

C. methane

D. oxygen.


ANSWERS

11. Which of the following halogens is solid at room temperature?

A. Bromine.

B. Chlorine.

C. Fluorine.

D. Iodine.


12. The alkaline earth metals have similar chemical properties because

A. they are in the same period

B. their salts are colourless

C. they have the same number of valence electrons

D. they are very reactive


13. The number of unpaired electrons in an atoms of an element aQ is

A.2.

B.4

C.6.

D.8.


14. The bond formed when ammonia reacts with hydrogen ion to from ammonium ion is

A. covalent.

B. dative.

C. hydrogen bond

D. ionic.


15. To which group and period respectively does an element with 15 electrons belong?

A. 3 and 3

B. 3 and 5

C. 5 and 3

D. 5 and 5


ANSWERS

16. The shape of a graphite crystal is

A. tetrahedral

B. pyramidal

C. octahedral

D. hexagonal


17. Which of the following oxides is ionic?

A. P4O10

B. MgO

C. Alj03

D. S02.


18. Which of the following substances when boiled with aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide would be hydrolysed? I. Protein II. Fat III. Polythene

A. I

B. II

C.I and II

D. II and III


19. Which of the following trioxonitrate (V) salts would decompose on heating to form a metal?

A. Cu(NO2)2

B. AgN03

C. Pb(NO2)2

D. KNO3


20. Consider the following reaction equation: C2H4(g) + 302(g) 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) The volume of C02(g) produced at s.f.p. when 0.05 moles of C2H4(g) was burnt in 02(g) is [Molar volume of gas = 22.4 dm3 ]

A. 1.12 dm3

B. 2.24 dm'

C. 3.72 dm'

D. 4.48 dm'


ANSWERS

21. The number of oxygen molecules present in 16.0 g of the gas is [Avogadro's number = 6.02 x 1023 ]

A. 6.02 x 1022.

B. 6.02 x 1023.

C. 3.01 x 1023

D. 1.51 x 1023.


22. Consider the following reaction equation: SO42-(aq) + 2H+(aq) + ye- SO2-3(aq) + H2O(i) The value of y in the equation is

A. 2

B. 3

C.4

D.6


23. The general gas equation was derived from

A. Boyle's and Gay Lussac's laws.

B. Boyle's and Graham's laws.

C. Boyle's and Charles' law.

D. Dalton's atomic theory.


24. The vapour pressure of a liquid depends on: I. temperature II. rate of condenation III. cohesive forces holding the particles together

A. I

B. I and II

C. I and III

D. II and III


25. Which of the following gases will diffuse most rapidly? [H - 1.00, C = 12.0, O = 16.0, S = 32.0, CI = 35.5 ]

A.CI2

B. S02

C.CH4

D. C2He


ANSWERS

26. When a reaction is endothermic,

A. enthalpy change, AH is negative.

B. heat content of product is less than the heat content of reactant.

C. heat content of reactants is less than the heat content of product

D the reaction is non-spontaneous.


27. Which of the following statements about intermolecular distances and cohesive forces between gas is correct? They are

A. both large

B. both negligible

C. constant and negligible

D. large and negligible


28. The following diagram illustrates the rate curve that was obtained when Mg reacted with excess dilute HCI. Time(s) The diagram became horizontal at X because





A. the reaction was slowed down.

B. ail the dulute HCI has reacted.

C. all the Mg has reacted

D. hydrogen gas is produced at a steady rate


29. An example of an acid salt is

A. CH,COOONa

B. Mg(OH)CI

C. NaHS04

D. (NH4)2S04


30. Which of the following oxides can be reduced by hydrogen?

A. Aluminium oxide

B. Magnesium oxide

C. Sodium oxide

D. Silver oxide


ANSWERS

31. Solubility is practically applied in

A. fractional distillation

B. the determination of pH

C. the determination of saturation in hydrocarbons

D. solvent extraction


32. Which of the following compounds is the least soluble in water?

A. CaCI2

B. CaS04

C. NaCl

D.Na2S04.


33. A substance which dissolves readily in organic solvent would

A. be a covalent compound

B. have strong electrostatic forces of attraction

C. have a high melting point

D. conduct electricity in molten state


34. Consider the following equilibrium system: 2S02(g) + O2(g) <---------> 2SO3(g) The addition of more 0^ to the system will shift the equilibrium position to the

A. right leading to the production of more SO*

B. right leading to the production of more SOm

C. left leading to the production of more S02te)

D. left leading to the production of more S0W


35. A change in the temperature of a saturated solution disturbs the equilibrium between the

A. undissolved solute and the solvent.

B. dissolved solute and the solvent.

C. dissolved solute and the undissolved solute.

D. dissolved solute and the solution.


ANSWERS

36. Which of the following statements about an electrochemical cell is correct? Oxidation occurs

A. at the anode.

B. at the cathode.

C. through the salt bridge.

D. in the aqueous solution.


37. Consider the following reaction equation: CuO(s) + H2(g) Cu(s) + H20(1) Which substance is oxidized?

A. Cu

B. CuO

C. H2

D. H20


38. Which of the following metals is the strongest reducing agent?

A. Sodium

B. Silver

C. Potassium

D. Copper


39. The complete hydrogenation of benzene gives

A. cyclohexene

B. cyclohexane

C. hexene D. hexane


40. A compound has an empirical formula CH2O and molecular mass of 90. Determine its molecular formula. [H = 1.00, 0 = 12,00 = 1.6]

A. C4H10O2.

B. CjH,0O2.

C. C,H603.

D. C2H204.


ANSWERS

41. Which of the following reactions would take place v^hen concentrated sodium hydroxide solution is added to hot palm oil?

A. Esterification.

B. Neutralization.

C. Polymerization.

D. Saponification.


42. Starch could be converted to glucose by the process of

A. condensation.

B. dehyration.

C. fermentation.

D. hydroysis.


43. Which of the following compounds is a secondary alkanol?

A. Ethanol

B. 2-methylbutan-2-ol

C. 3-methylpentan-2-ol

D. Propan-l-ol


44. Which of the following substances is a heavy chemical?

A. Ammonia

B. Barium hydroxide

C. Hydrochloric acid

D. Tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid


45. Which of the following processes does not take place in domestic water treatment?

A. Chlorination

B. Flocculation

C. Neutralization

D. Sedimentation


ANSWERS

46. A substance responsible for the sour taste of unripe oranges is

A. alkene.

B. alkanol.

C. alkanoic acid.

D. alkanoate.


47. Which of the following products of biotechnology can be used as a fuel in place of petrol?

A. Butane

B. Ethanol

C. Ethene

D. Propanol


48. Which of the following polymers is thermosetting?

A. Bakelite

B. Nylon

C. Polypropene

D. Polystyrene


49. The correct balanced equation for the recation between aluminium metal and hot concentrated tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid is

A. 2AI(s) + 6H2S04(i) AI2(S04)3(aq) + 6H2O(1) + 3SO2(g)-

B. 2AI(s) + 3H2SO4(i) AI2(S04)3(aq) + 6H20(1) + 3S02(g)-

C. 2AI(s) + 4H2S04(i) AI2(S04) 3(aq) + 8H20(1) + 4S02(g)-

D. AI(s) + 3H2S04(i) AI2(S04) 3(aq) + 6H20(1) + 3S02(g)-


50. Which of the following gases is monoatomic?

A. Argon

B. Chlorine

C. Nitrogen

D. Oxygen



WASSCE JUNE 2015 CHEMISTRY OBJECTIVE TEST

ANSWERS

​1. A 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. D 8. D 9. D 10. B

11. D 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. C 16. D 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. B

21. C 22. A 23. C 24. B 25. C 26. C 27. D 28. C 29. C 30. D

31. D 32. B 33. A 34. A 35. D 36. A 37. C 38. C 39. B 40. C

41. D 42. D 43. C 44. D 45. C 46. C 47. B 48. A 49. A 50. A


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