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GEOGRAPHY


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THEORY QUESTIONS
WAEC SYLLABUS

WASSCE 2005

Objectives



Use the map of Adam District to answer questions 1-10





1. The scale of the map in representative fraction is

A. 1:25,000

B. 1:50,000

C. 1:100,000

D. 1:200,000


2. The direction of Ohewo from Ipiga is

A. North-East

B. South-West

C. North-West

D. South -East


3. Which of the following is a confluence?

A. Ohewo

B. Oju

C. Ipoya

D. Ipiga


4. Which of the following crops is likely to be cultivated in the area liable to flooding?

A. Rice

B. Yam

C. Cocoa

D. Groundnut


5. The feature marked can be described as

A. An ox-bow lake

B. A meander

C. A spur

D. A col


ANSWERS

6. The direction of flow of River Pam is

A. North-west

B. North-East

C. South-West

D. South-East


7. The likely occupation of the people in Ipiga is

A. Fishing

B. Farming

C. Mining

D. Lumbering


8. The settlement of Ipoya can be described as

A. Linear

B. Clustered

C. Nucleated

D. Dispersed


9. The feature marked A –B can best be described as

A. Concave slope

B. Scarp slope

C. Dip slope

D. Convex slope


10. The bearing of Ohewo from Adum is approximately

A. 225°

B. 265°

C. 270°

D. 275°


ANSWERS



Use the above table to answer questions 11-12


11. The annual range of temperature for the stations is

A. 6℃

B. 9℃

C. 11℃

D. 12℃


12. Which of the following pairs of weather instruments were used to collect the data for the station?

A. A rain guage and an anemometer

B. A wind vane and a thermometer

C. A thermometer and a rain guage

D. A barometer and a rain guage


13. What is the approximate distance of town X from the equator, if it is located on latitude 14° N?

A. 1555km

B. 1232km

C. 441km

D. 42km


14. When a warm ocean current meets a cold ocean current, they produce

A. Mist

B. Signal

C. Fog

D. Hail


15. The distance of Planet Mercury form the sun is about

A. 40 million km

B. 50 million km

C. 57 million km

D. 60 million km


ANSWERS

16. The most distant planet from the sun is

A. Neptune

B. Mars

C. Earth

D. Pluto


17. Which of the following is not a proof that the earth is spherical?

A. The circular horizon

B. Sunrise and sunset

C. Varying lengths of day and night

D. Driving poles on a level ground


18. The latitudes which marks the limits of the apparent movement of the overhead sun are the

A. Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle

B. Arctic and Antarctic Circles

C. Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn

D. Equator and the Arctic circle


19. Weathering erosion, transportation and deposition are processes of

A. Mass wasting

B. Vulcanicity

C. Denudation

D. Exfoliation


20. Which of the following factors tines not affect the salinity of the oceans?

A. Rate of evaporation

B. Degrees of water mixing by current

C. Amount of fresh water added by rain

D. Shape of the ocean floor


ANSWERS

21. Six’s thermometer is used to measure

A. Maximum temperature

B. Minimum temperature

C. Minimum and maximum temperatures

D. Average temperatures


22. The maximum temperature recorded for Station X in a particular day was 14℃ while the minimum temperature was -4℃. The diurnal range of temperature for the day was

A. 5℃

B. 9℃

C.12℃

D. 18℃


23. “It is warm and dusty, originates from the Sahara and reaches its lowest southward extent in January.” The above best describes

A. Tropical maritime airmass

B. Tropical Continental airmass

C. South Westerlies

D. Equatorial Easterlies


24. Heavy rain falls are often associated with

A. Cirrus clouds

B. Cumulonimbus clouds

C. Nimbostratus clouds

D. Alto-stratus clouds


25. Which of the following gases is most abundant in the atmosphere?

A. Oxygen

B. Hydrogen

C. Argon

D. Nitrogen


ANSWERS

26. Marble, slate and gneiss are

A. Metamorphic rocks

B. Sedimentary rocks

C. Plutonic rocks

D. Volcanic rocks


27. Which of the following is not a process of wind erosion?

A. Abrasion

B. Attrition

C. Hydraulic action

D. Deflation


28. Compressional forces are mainly responsible for the formation of

A. Fold mountains

B. Volcanic mountains and lava plateau

C. Residual mountains and plains

D. Block mountains


29. The instrument used for measuring the speed of wind is called

A. Cup anemometer

B. Speedometer

C. Wind vane

D. Prismatic compass


30. Coastal erosion can be prevented by

A. Increasing the volume of water in the ocean

B. Increasing the volume of water around the coast

C. The stabilization of sandy and muddy beaches by coastal vegetation

D. The removal of sandy and muddy beaches along the coast


ANSWERS

31. Coastlines washed by cold currents normally have

A. High temperature

B. Scanty rainfall

C. Excessive rainfall

D. Moderate rainfall


32. A continental shelf is economically important because it

A. Is a good fishing ground

B. Is good for irrigation

C. Is very deep

D. Contains little salt


33. The most important A horizon of a soil profile is

A. Eluviations

B. Deposition

C. Weathering

D. Illuviation


34. All the following farming practices result in soil erosion except

A. Ploughing of land up and won slope

B. Persistent cultivation of crops in regions of inadequate rainfall

C. Over cropping

D. Mixed cropping


35. Which of the following features are associated with a river capture? I. Misfit river II. River terraces III. Elbow of capture IV. Wind gap

A. I, III and IV

B. I, II, III and IV

C. I, II and IV

D. II, III and IV


ANSWERS

36. Which of the following is not a method by which rivers transport their eroded materials?

A. Suspension

B. Traction

C. Attrition

D. Solution


37. Which of the following sea routes carries the heaviest traffic?

A. The Suez Canal route

B. The North Atlantic sea route

C. The Cape route

D. The Panama Canal route


38. The biosphere contains all the following except

A. Man

B. Rocks

C. Animals

D. Microorganisms


39. Land and sea breezes on a continental scale are called

A. Typhoons

B. Monsoons

C. The Fohn

D. The Chinook


40. The Mediterranean type of climate is best suited for

A. Cattle rearing

B. Fruit growing

C. Rice cultivation

D. Vegetable gardening


ANSWERS

41. Which of the following vegetation types is associated with the sub-equatorial type of climate?

A. Rain forest

B. Steppe

C. Montane

D. Pampas


42. Which of the following shows the correct sequence in food chain?

A. Herbivores

B. Carnivores

C. Plants

D. Decomposers


43. One of the major characteristics of heavy industries is that they

A. Need low skilled man power

B. Are mainly concentrated in the rural areas

C. Need mainly female labour force

D. Require high capital outlay


44. A country is said to be land-locked when

A. She experiences a free flow of traffic

B. Her waterways are frozen in winter

C. She experiences a lot of traffic congestion

D. She has no direct access to the sea


45. Which of the following is a major hindrance to HEP production in Africa?

A. Inadequate capital

B. Unavailability of goods sites

C. Absence of a domestic market

D. Sufficient volume of water


ANSWERS

46. One advantage of inland water ways is that

A. They are flexible

B. They are fast

C. Goods are transported cheaply

D. Rivers, at times, flow through areas of limited commercial value


47. Which of the following is a demerit of low population density?

A. Low crime rate

B. High per capita income

C. Inadequate labour force

D. Low pressure on social amenities


48. The most difficult problem facing lumbering in Zaire is that the

A. Woods are too hard and difficult to process

B. Logs are too heavy to be moved to the sawmills

C. Economic trees are not found in pure stands

D. Other countries are competing with Zaire in lumbering activities


49. Which of the following vegetation types is found only in the Northern hemisphere?

A. Tropical grassland

B. Equatorial forest

C. Tundra

D. Mediterranean


50. One effect of rural-urban migration on the source region is

A. Rapid urbanization

B. Intensive pressure on land use in rural areas

C. Rural depopulation

D. Urban depopulation



WASSCE JUNE 2005 GEOGRAPHY OBJECTIVE TEST

ANSWERS

​​1. C 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. C 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. D 21. C 22. D 23. B 24. B 25. D 26. A 27. C 28. A 29. A 30. C 31. B 32. A 33. A 34. D 35. A 36. C 37. B 38. B 39. B 40. B 41. A 42. C 43. D 44. D 45. A 46. C 47. C 48. C 49. C 50. C


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Q 11-20
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