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GEOGRAPHY


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THEORY QUESTIONS
WAEC SYLLABUS

WASSCE 2013

Objectives



Answer all the questions

Study the map of ODU DISTRICT on page 3 and use it to answer questions 1 – 10





1. What is the approximate distance by rail from Kabe to Ode?

A. 9.0 km

B. 8.0 km

C. 6.0 km

D. 4.0 km


2. The direction of ODU from Sofia is

A. Southwest

B. East

C. Northwest

D. South


3. What is the scale of the map expressed as Representative Fraction (R.F.)?

A. 1:25,000

B. 1:50,000

C. 1:100,000

D. 1:250,000


4. What is the name of the relief feature lettered W?

A. Headland

B. Conical hill

C. Plateau

D. Lake


5. The symbol 1030 represents a

A. Bench mark

B. Boundary pillar

C. Trigonometrical station

D. Beacon


ANSWERS

6. Which of the following industries could be set up in Yapo?

A. Saw milling

B. Fruit canning

C. Meat canning

D. Oil refining


7. The long stretch of highland to the northern part of the map is a

A. Caldera

B. Canyon

C. Ridge

D. Gorge


8. Which of the following areas is best suited for sugar cane cultivation?

A. Area round segot

B. Area south of Yapo

C. The lowland of the northeast

D. The forest area


9. From which of the following settlements is ODU visible?

A. Gamb

B. Segot

C. Yapo

D. Sofia


10. ODU is most likely to be important trading centre because it is

A. A nodal centre

B. A fish canning town

C. A mining town

D. Close to a port


ANSWERS

11. Which of the following planets is the farthest from the sun in the solar system?

A. Mars

B. Mercury

C. Neptune

D. Pluto


12. What will be the local time in Nigeria 15°E when the time is 7:00 pm in town Y 30°W?

A. 9:00 am

B. 10:00 pm

C. 10:36 am

D. 10:36 pm


13. What is the approximate distance between two places if one is located on 11°N and the other on 5°S on the same longitude?

A. 211 km

B. 1,110 km

C. 1,776 km

D. 1,976 km


14. The horizontal displacement of blocks of the earth’s crust along a fault plane is called

A. Tear faulting

B. Reverse faulting

C. Normal faulting

D. Isostatic faulting


15. The section of the external structure of the earth that supports life is the

A. Biosphere

B. Atmosphere

C. Lithosphere

D. Barysphere


ANSWERS

16. Which of the following are examples of metamorphic rocks?

A. Basal and gabbro

B. Gneiss and quart

C. Granite and gabbro

D. Gneiss and basalt


17. The name of the volcanic rock which often forms the root of fold mountains is called

A. Batholiths

B. Dyke

C. Sill

D. Lopolith


18. Which of the following is the most important weathering process in karst regions?

A. Hydrolysis

B. Oxidation

C. Hydration

D. Carbonation


19. Which of the following mass wasting process results in curved tree trunks and leaning telegraph poles?

A. Rock fall

B. Earth flow

C. Soil creep

D. Mud flow


20. Which of the following are circular depressions formed on the bed of a river in its upper course by pebbles carried by the river?

A. Pot holes

B. Plunge pools

C. Gorges

D. Rapids


ANSWERS

21. Through what process are rift valleys formed?

A. Folding

B. Erosion

C. Faulting

D. Weathering


22. The process by which rocks are disintegrated by physical and chemical means in situ is known as

A. Depositions

B. Erosion

C. Transportation

D. Weathering


23. Which of the following is a feature commonly found in the youthful sage of a river?

A. Levee

B. Delta

C. Oxbow lake

D. Interlocking spur


24. The shallow part of the sea adjoining the coast is called

A. Continental shelf

B. Continental slope

C. Oceanic island

D. Oceanic plateau


25. Most warm ocean currents flow

A. In tropical seas

B. From the Equator

C. To the Equator

D. In high latitudes


ANSWERS

26. Hail, fog, dew and frost are all forms of

A. Rainfall

B. Cloud

C. Water vapour

D. Precipitation


27. Which of the following elements of weather and climate is matched with the wrong measuring instrument?

A. Wind direction and wind vane

B. Temperature and thermometer

C. Humidity and barometer

D. Rainfall and rainguage


28. Through which of the following processes does solar energy warm the earth’s surface?

A. Refraction

B. Convection

C. Conduction

D. Radiation


29. The release of harmful substances into the environment is called

A. Flooding

B. Drought

C. Harmattan

D. Pollution


30. Which of the following is the most important agent of erosion in humid regions?

A. Fog

B. Wind

C. Ice

D. Running water


ANSWERS

The diagram below shows a hypothetical representation of population of selected countries in 2007, 2008 and 2009.





31. The diagrammatic representation above is a

A. Venn diagram

B. Line graph

C. Pie chart

D. Bar graph


32. The population of Canada in 2008 is

A. 190 million

B. 400 million

C. 650 million

D. 750 million


33. By how much did the population of Germany grow between 2008 and 2009?

A. 10 million

B. 50 million

C. 120 million

D. 400 million


34. Water pollution is caused by all the following except

A. Treated sewage

B. Industrial waste

C. Oil spillage

D. Fishing with chemicals


35. “The climate is constantly warm, rainfall is relatively abundant with double maxima, there is no month, without rain”. These are characteristics of the

A. Monsoon climate

B. Warm temperate climate

C. Equatorial climate

D. Mediterranean climate


ANSWERS

36. Which of the following climatic types has the smallest annual range of temperature?

A. Cool temperate

B. Warm temperate

C. Tropical desert

D. Equatorial


37. Which of the following is the first stage in the process of lumbering?

A. Trees are cut into logs

B. Suitable species are identified

C. Trees are felled with power saw

D. Platforms are built for buttress trees


38. Which of the following criteria is not important in distinguishing between a village and a town?

A. Geographical situation

B. Population size

C. Social amenities

D. Variety of activities


39. The number of persons per square kilometer of land is called

A. Total population

B. High population

C. Population density

D. Optimum population


40. Which of the following is a disadvantage of high population density?

A. Unemployment

B. Low crime rate

C. Low pressure on social amenities

D. Regular flow of traffic


ANSWERS

41. Which factor of industrial location explains the establishment of cement industries near areas of limestone deposit? Proximity to

A. Power

B. Source of raw materials

C. Market

D. Income sources


42. Which of the following modes of transportation provides door-to-door services?

A. Road transport

B. Rail transport

C. Ocean navigation

D. Air transport


43. African rivers exhibit the following characteristics except

A. That they have sources in the interior highlands

B. The presence of rapids and waterfalls on their courses

C. That they exhibit seasonal variations in water volume

D. That they have great depths


44. What method of mining is used for extracting petroleum in Africa?

A. Crushing

B. Drilling

C. Adit

D. Open cast


45. What factor accounts for the slow rate of industrial development in Tropical Africa?

A. Inadequate capital

B. Availability of essential social services

C. Adequate skilled labour

D. Modern technology


ANSWERS

46. What is the name of the local wind that blows in West Africa between November and February?

A. Harmattan

B. Chinook

C. Monsoon wind

D. Land breeze


47. Which of the following vegetation belts is the most extensive?

A. Mediterranean forest

B. Temperate grassland

C. Savannah

D. Temperate forest


48. Through which of the following sea routes is crude oil from West Africa transported to European markets?

A. The Panama Canal route

B. The Cape route

C. The Suez Canal route

D. The North Atlantic route


49. Which of the following towns has winter rainfall and summer drought?

A. Banjul

B. Cape Town

C. Lagos

D. Accra


50. Favourable factors for lumbering in Africa include all the following except

A. High demand for tropical timber

B. Presence of many economic trees

C. High demand for fuel wood

D. Inaccessible equatorial forest



WASSCE JUNE 2013 GEOGRAPHY OBJECTIVE TEST

ANSWERS

​​1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. B 13. C 14. C 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. D 19. C 20. B 21. C 22. D 23. D 24. A 25. B 26. D 27. C 28. D 29. D 30. D 31. D 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. C 36. D 37. B 38. A 39. C 40. A 41. B 42. A 43. D 44. B 45. A 46. A 47. C 48. D 49. B 50. D


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