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GEOGRAPHY


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THEORY QUESTIONS
WAEC SYLLABUS

WASSCE 2014

Objectives



Study the map of IGBONLA DISTRICT below and use it to answer questions 1- 10.

IGBONLA




ANSWERS

1. The scale of the map in statement form is one centimeter on the map represents

A. Four kilometers on the ground

B. Three kilometers on the ground

C. One kilometer on the ground

D. Half kilometer on the ground


2. What is the distance by rail from Ore to Kanbi?

A. 18.0 km

B. 13.5 km

C. 10.0 km

D. 4.5 km


3. Which of the following towns is visible from Ore?

A. Isapa

B. Ishole

C. Kanbi

D. Aye


4. The lower banks of River Ati could best be used for the cultivation of

A. Cocoyam

B. Wheat

C. Rice

D. Yam


5. The growth of IGBONLA settlement is as a result of its location as the

A. Most central position on the map

B. Largest undulating terrain available for agricultural activities

C. Most apparently secured place in time of war

​D. Meeting point of different route ways



6. Plantation agriculture is practiced in the

A. Northeast

B. Northwest

C. Southeast

D. Southwest


7. The angular bearing of Faki from IGBONLA is approximately

A. 105°

B. 230°

C. 310°

D. 3550


8. What is the contour interval on the map?

A. 350m

B. 450m

C. 850m

D. 950m


9. The highest point on the map is

A. 350m

B. 450m

C. 850m

D. 950m


10. The likely reason for the construction of railway to link Ore with Kanbi is to

A. Provide for the inadequacies in road connections

B. Provide means for distributing manufactured goods from kanbi

C. Convey mineral products from Ore inland

D. Convey a large population of people out of Ore


ANSWERS

11. The nearest planet to the sun is the

A. Pluto

B. Earth

C. Mars

D. Mercury


12. The Longitude that joins Longitude 180° at the opposite side of the globe to form a Great Circle is

A. Longitude 0°

B. Longitude 30° E

C. Longitude 150° W

D. Longitude 170° W


13. Which of the following lines of latitudes divides the earth into two hemispheres?

A. Tropic of Cancer

B. Tropic of Capricron

C. The Equator

D. Antarctic Circle


14. The part of the earth’s crust hat is covered by oceans and seas is called

A. Biosphere

B. Ionosphere

C. Stratosphere

D. Hydrosphere


15. The angular distance of a point on the Earth’s surface measured in degrees from the centre of the Earth east or west of the Greenwich Meridian is known as

A. Axis

B. Latitude

C. Orbit

D. Longitude


ANSWERS

16. An example of an organically formed sedimentary rock is

A. Rock salt

B. Granite

C. Sandstone

D. Coal


17. Sills, dykes and batholiths are example of

A. Intrusive volcanic landforms

B. Extrusive volcanic landforms

C. Landforms from earthquakes

D. Depositional landforms


18. In which part of the atmosphere do rain clouds develop?

A. Troposphere

B. Stratosphere

C. Thermosphere

D. Exosphere


19. The process of headward erosion will lead to the formation of

A. Alluvial cones

B. Potholes

C. River capture

D. Oxbow lakes


20. Which type of rock are quartzite, schist and marble?

A. Metamorphic

B. Igneous

C. Sedimentary

D. Volcanic


ANSWERS

21. A Plateau that is enclosed by two fold mountains is called

A. An intermont plateau

B. A lava plateau

C. A volcanic plateau

D. A dissected plateau


22. The nearest part of the ocean basin to the continent is called

A. Deep sea plain

B. Continental slope

C. Continental shelf

D. Abyssal plain


23. The feature formed by cooling of molten magma across the bedding plane is

A. Sill

B. Dyke

C. Batholiths

D. Laccoltih


24. Lines on maps joining place of same temperature above sea level are called

A. Isotherms

B. Isohyets

C. Isobars

D. Isohalines


25. When wet and dry bulb thermometers record the same temperature, it means

A. Air is dry

B. Air is saturated

C. Humidity is high

D. Humidity is low


ANSWERS

26. Which of the following best describes the harmattan? It is

A. Wet and cold

B. Dry, cold and wet

C. Dry and dusky

D. Of high relative humidity


27. A disaster caused by the nature or man which poses a serious danger to lives and properties of the people is called

A. Intervention

B. Hazard

C. Interaction

D. Change


28. Environmental balance includes all the following except

A. Hydrological cycle

B. Carbon cycle

C. Food chain and food web

D. Earthquake cycle


29. Coal and mineral oil are usually found embedded in

A. Crystalline rocks

B. Igneous rocks

C. Metamorphic rocks

D. Sedimentary rocks


30. The Alps, Himalayas and Rock mountains are

A. Extinct volcanoes

B. Fold mountains

C. Residual mountains

D. Block mountains


ANSWERS

31. Which of the following landforms is associated with wind deposition?

A. Barchans

B. Rock pedestal

C. Yardang

D. Zeugen


32. Swallow holes and disappearing streams are usually associated with

A. Limestone regions

B. Humid regions

C. Upper course of rivers

D. Desert regions


33. Which of the following is a fossil fuel?

A. Lignite

B. Mica

C. Granite

D. Gnesis


34. The major source of power for most terrestrial ecosystem is

A. Geothermal energy

B. Hydroelectric power

C. Solar energy

D. Nuclear power


The figure below represents the imports and exports of selected countries in 2009.

Use the figure to answer questions 35 to 37.


IMPORTS & EXPORTS OF SELECTED COUNTRIES




ANSWERS

35. By how much is the export of Japan higher than that of Ghana in 2009?

A. 1,500 million

B. 2,200 million

C. 2,800 million

D. 3,300 million



36. How much did the United States of America (U.S.A.) spend on imports in 2009?

A. 3,000 million

B. 2,500 million

C. 1,500 million

D. 1,000 million


37. The statistical method used for representing the data above is

A. Pie chart

B. Divided bar graph

C. Histogram

D. Line graph


38. The problems associated with the world’s high population growth rate include all the following except

A. Housing problem

B. Inadequate food

C. Pressure on social amenities

D. Adequate medical facilities


39. Which of the following is the smallest form of settlement?

A. Farmstead

B. Village

C. Metropolis

D. Town


40. Which of the following best explains why limestone areas are often dry?

A. Limestone areas are subject to excessive evaporation

B. There is little rainfall in limestone areas

C. Rain water percolates easily through limestone rocks

D. Limestone areas have a lot of spring


ANSWERS

41. An advantage of air transport in the world is its

A. High patronage

B. Ability to carry bulky goods

C. Affordability to the masses

D. Speedy movement of goods and passengers


42. Leather works, carving, cloth weaving are examples of

A. Chemical industry

B. Factory industry

C. Local craft industry

D. Heavy industry


43. Which of the following metals is used extensively in the electrical industry?

A. Magnesium

B. Carbon

C. Copper

D. Aluminium


44. A port ha specializes in receiving and redistributing goods to other nations is

A. A river port

B. An airport

C. An entrepot

D. An inland port


45. The concentration of industries in urban centres of developing countries is due to all the following except

A. High demand

B. Availability of labour

C. Location of raw materials

D. Presence of infrastructural facilities


ANSWERS

46. Which objective of the Economic Community of West African State (ECOWAS) is performed by WAFU?

A. Language integration

B. Common currency

C. Free movement

D. Cultural integration


47. The export trade of most West African countries consists of

A. Machineries

B. Primary products

C. Processed goods

D. Dairy products


48. The measure of population concentration in a place is called

A. Population pyramid

B. Population density

C. Emigration

D. Net migration


49. Which of the following factors can be used to differentiate between a village and a town?

A. Location

B. Structure

C. Pattern

D. Function


50. The financial headquarters of the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) is located at

A. Lome

B. Banjul

C. Lagos

D. Cotonou



WASSCE JUNE 2014 GEOGRAPHY OBJECTIVE TEST

ANSWERS

​1. C 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. C 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. D 16. D 17. A 18. A 19. B 20. A 21. D 22. C 23. A 24. A 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. D 29. D 30. A 31. A 32. A 33. A 34. C 35. A 36. D 37. B 38. D 39. A 40. C 41. D 42. C 43. D 44. C 45. C 46. C 47. B 48. B 49. D 50. D


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